Really, Wikipedia ruined this problem for me in advance, or at least part a. The answer to both these problems is yes.
Proof: (a) The easiest methods are nonconstructive; observe α=√2√2. Either α is rational, in which the proposition is established, or α is irrational. If α is irrational, then α√2=√2(√2·√2)=√22=2 is a pair of irrationals α,√2 establishing the proposition.
(b) My method for this too is nonconstructive; assume the proposition is false. Then observe the map √2_:ℝ∖ℚ→ℚ. Since the union of two countable sets would then be countable, and since ℝ is uncountable, we have ℝ∖ℚ is uncountable. Therefore this map is not injective and we have √2r=√2r′ for some distinct irrationals r,r′. But exponentiation is naturally injective, so we observe a contradiction.
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