Commentary: I had already read about how the set of Pythagorean Triples may be completely classified, though I didn't quite recall it at the moment, so I decided to do this problem by figuring out my own simple method.
Proof: Observe a2+b2=c2 implies a2=(c−b)(c+b), so when a is an odd prime this means we must solve c−b=1 and c+b=a2, namely by c=b+1 and b=(a2−1)/2. The triples (3,4,5) and (5,12,13) are of this form, and we may generate (7,24,25), (11,60,61), .... ◻
Since (a,b,c) being a triple implies (an,bn,cn) is a triple for n∈ℕ, this implies that every positive integer with an odd prime divisor (i.e., every positive integer except powers of 2) is part of a Pythagorean Triple. This method can be applied to demonstrate that 1 and 2 are not part of any Pythagorean Triple, and that (2n,(22n−1−2)/2,(22n−1+2)/2) for n>1 is a nontrivial Pythagorean Triple for greater powers of 2.
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